Walaupun olimpiade sains nasional (OSN) sudah berakhir tidak ada salahnya jika kita mempelajari Soal yang sudah diujikan. S oal-soal olimpiade matematika bukan sekedar soal yang dapat diselesaikan secara umum menggunakan rumus matematika dasar yang sudah diajarkan, akan tetapi lebih dari itu, Untuk itu berlatih soal-soal olimpiade matematika bisa menjadi cara kita memahami persoalan-persoalan. Home » Pelajaran Matematika SD Kelas 5 » Pelajaran MaTematika SD Kelas 6 » Soal KPK dan FPB Kelas 5 dan 6 SD Dilengkapi Kunci Jawaban. Tuesday, April 11, 2017 Pelajaran Matematika SD Kelas 5 Pelajaran MaTematika SD Kelas 6. Kedua jam berbunyi bersamaan lagi untuk kedua kali pada pukul. Roni pergi berenang 12 hari sekali, Anton 15.

1. Soal Dan Pembahasan Tentang Fpb Sd Untuk Osn En
2. Soal Dan Pembahasan Tentang Fpb Sd Untuk Osn Streaming

Soal Dan Pembahasan Tentang Fpb Sd Untuk Osn En

Action=redirect is applied inA. Chain=forwardJAWAB: B2. You have 802.11b/g wireless card.

What frequencies are available to you?A. 2327MHzJAWAB: B3. Mark all correct statements about /export (rsc file).A. Exports logs from /log printB. Exports full configuration of the routerC. Exports only part of the configuration (for example /ip firewall).D.

Exports scripts from /system script.E. Exports files could not editedJAWAB:4. What wireless card can we use to achieve 100 Mbps actual wireless throughput?A. 802.11 a/b/gC.

802.11 a/n.E. 802.11 a/b/g/nJAWAB: D5. It is possible to add user-defined chains in ip firewall mangleJAWAB: NO6. Choose all valid hosts address range for subnet 15.242.55.62/27A. 15.242.55.33-15.242.55.63JAWAB: C7.

Action=redirect allows you to makeA. Transparent DNS Cache.B. Forward DNS to another device IP address.C. Enable Local ServiceD. Transparent HTTP Proxy.JAWAB: D8. Which is correct masquerade rule for 192.168.0.0/24 network on the router with outgoing interface=ether1?A. /ip firewall nat add action=masquerade chain=srcnatB.

/ip firewall nat add action=masquerade chain=srcnat src-address=192.168.0.0/24C. /ip firewall nat add action=masquerade out-interface=ether1 chain=dstnatD. /ip firewall nat add action=masquerade chain=srcnat out-interface=ether1JAWAB: D9. What letters appear next to a route, which is automatically created by RouterOS when user adds a valid address to an active interface?A. Mark all features that are compatible with NstremeA. WDS between a device in station-wds mode and a device in station-wds mode - GA BISAB. Encryption - GA BISAC.

WDS between a device in ap-bridge mode with a device in station-wds mode - BISAD. Bridging a device in station mode with a device in ap-bridge mode - BISA (????)JAWAB: C untuk yg D saya ragu. Kalo bridge ga perlu pake fitur nstreme udah bisa11. Can you manually add drivers to RouterOS in case your PCI Ethernet card is not recognized, and it's a driver issue?A.

NoJAWAB: B12. For static routing functionality, additionally to the RouterOS system package, you will also need the following software package:A.

Advanced-toolsJAWAB: A13. Which are necessary sections in /queue simple to set bandwidth limitation?A. Target-address, max-limit.B. Target-address, dst-address, max-limit.C.

Target-address, dst-addressD. Max-limitJAWAB: A/B14. What protocol is used for Ping and Trace route?A. UDPJAWAB: D15. From which of the following locations can you obtain Winbox?A. Router's webpageB. Files menu in your routerC.

Via the console cableD. Mikrotik.comJAWAB: A/D16. Two hosts, A and B, are connected to a broadcast LAN. Select all the answers showing pairs of IP address/mask which would allow IP connections to be established between the two hosts.A.

A: 10.1.2.66/25 and B: 10.1.2.109/26B. A: 10.2.2.1/23 and B: 10.2.0.1/22C. A: 10.1.2.192/24 and B: 10.1.2.129/26 - 10.1.2.1-10.1.2.254D. A: 10.2.1.0/23 and B: 10.2.0.1/22JAWAB: C/B/D17. Why is it useful to set a Radio Name on the radio interface?A.

To identify a station in a list of connected clientsB. To identify a station in the Access ListC. To identify a station in Neighbor discoveryJAWAB: C/b/a18.

What kind of users are listed in the Secrets window of the PPP menu?A. Pptp users.B.

L2tp users.C. Winbox usersD.

Wireless usersE. Pppoe users.F.

Hotspot usersJAWAB: A/B/E19. Router A and B are both running as PPPoE servers on different broadcast domains of your network. Is it possible to set Router A to use '/ppp secret' accounts from Router B to authenticate PPPoE customers?JAWAB: YES20. MikroTik RouterOS DHCP client can receive following optionsA. Uptime limitE.

IP Address and SubnetJAWAB: B/E21. The HotSpot feature can be used only on ethernet interfaces. You have to use a separate access point if you want to use this feature with wireless.JAWAB: N0 / FALSE22. If you need to make sure that one computer in your HotSpot network can access the Internet without HotSpot authentication, which menu allows you to do this?A. IP bindingsC. Walled-garden IPJAWAB: B23.

How many different priorities can be selected for queues in MikroTik RouterOS?A. Which default route will be active?/ip routeadd disabled=no distance=10 dst-address=0.0.0.0/0 gateway=1.1.1.1add disabled=no distance=5 dst-address=0.0.0.0/0 gateway=2.2.2.2A. Route via gateway 1.1.1.1B. Route via gateway 2.2.2.2JAWAB: B25.

How long is level 1 (demo) license valid?A. Infinite timeC.

1 yearJAWAB: ASoal Ujian MTCNA (2012)yang ini soal ujian ane ganalhamdulillah lulus1. On the advanced menu of the wireless setup there is a parameter called 'Area', it works directly with:A.

Connect List B. Access ListC. None of theseD. Security Profile2. What menus should be used to allow certain websites to be accessed from behind a hotspot interface, without client authenticationA. Ip hotspot ip-bindingB.

Ip hotspot profileC. Ip hotspot walled-garden D. Ip hotspot walled-garden ip3.

You want to use PCQ and allow 256k maximum download and upload for each client. Choose correct argument values for the required queue.A. You populate the customers list object with several hundred customer objects. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=1256000 pcq-classifier=dst-addressB. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=dst-addressC.

Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=src-addressD. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=src-addressE. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=dst-address4. Which of the following is true for connection trackingA. Enabling connection tracking reduces CPU usage in RouterOSB. Connection tracking must be enabled for firewall to be effectiveC. Connection tracking must be enable for NAT'ed networkD.

Disable connection tracking for mangle to work5. Which of these are possible solutions to bridge two networks over a wireless link:A. Both devices in AP mode and enable WDS modeB. One device in AP mode, another one in station-pseudobridge-cloneC. One device in AP mode, another one in station-pseudobridgeD. One device in AP mode, another one in station6. What kind of users are listed in the Secrets window of the PPP menu?A.

Hotspot usersB. Pppoe usersC.

Wireless usersF. Winbox users7. Router A and B are both running as PPPoE servers on different broadcast domains of your network. Is it possible to set Router A to use '/ppp secret' accounts from Router B to authenticate PPPoE customers?8.

You have a 802.11b/g wireless card. Which frequencies can be set?A. Which of the following Routes statuses are possible?A. C = ConnectedB. Can you manually add drivers to RouterOS in case your PCI Ethernet card is not recognized, and you suspect it is a driver issue?A. Action=redirect applies toA.

Route rulesB. DST-NAT rulesC. Firewall Filter rulesD. SRC-NAT rules12. When backing up your router by using the 'Export' command, the following happens:A.

Winbox usernames and passwords are backed upB. The Export file can be edited with a standard text editor after its creationC. You are requested to give the export file a name13. You need to reboot a RouterBoard after importing a previously exported rsc file to activate the new configuration.14. If ARP=reply-only is configured on an interface, what will this interface doA.

Add new IP addresses in /ip arp listB. Accept all IP/MAC combinations listed in /ip arp as static entriesC. Add new MAC addresses in /ip arp listD. Accept all IP addresses listed in /ip arp as static entriesE. Accept all MAC-addresses listed in /ip arp as static entries15. It is impossible to disable user 'admin' at the menu '/user'16. If a packet comes to a router and starts a new, previously unseen connection, which connection state would be applied to it?A.

No connection state would be applied to such packetB. We have two radio cards in a point-to-point link with settings:Card Nr 1.: mode=ap-bridge ssid='office'frequency=2447 band=2.4ghz-b/g default-authentication=yes default-forwarding=yes security-profile=wpaCard Nr 2.: mode=station ssid='office'frequency=2412 band=2.4ghz-b/g default-authentication=yes default-forwarding=yes security-profile=wpa2Is Card Nr2. Able to connect to Card Nr 1.?A. Yes, if Nstreme is enabled or disabled on bothB.

Yes, when security profile settings are compatible with each other and Nstreme is enabled or disabled on bothC. No, because of the different frequenciesD. No, because of the different security profiles18. If you need to make sure that one computer in your HotSpot network can access the Internet without HotSpot authentication, which menu allows you to do this?A. Walled-garden IPB.

IP bindings19. Consider the following network diagram. In R1, you have the following configuration:/ip routeadd dst-address=192.168.1.0/24 gateway=192.168.99.2/ip firewall natadd chain=srcnat out-interface=Ether1 action=masqueradeOn R2, if you wish to prevent all access to a server located at 192.168.1.10 from LAN1 devices, which of the following rules would be needed?A. /ip firewall filter add chain=forward src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropB.

/ip firewall filter add chain=input src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropC. /ip firewall nat add chain=dstnat src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropD. /ip firewall filter add chain=forward src-address=192.168.0.0/24 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=drop20. What is the default protocol/port of (secure) winbox?A. What protocol is used for Ping and Trace route?A. Mark the queue types that are available in RouterOSA.

SFQ – Stochastic Fairness QueuingB. DRR - Deficit Round RobinC.

FIFO - First In First Out (for Bytes or for Packets)D. LIFO - Last In First OutE. PCQ – Per Connection QueuingF. RED – Random Early Detect (or Drop)23.

Select which of the following are 'Public IP addresses':A. What letters appear next to a route, which is automatically created by RouterOS when user adds a valid address to an active interface?A. Which is the default port of IP-Winbox?A. UDP 8291Coba jawab lagi ah:1. Is ARP used in the IPv6 protocol?True / FalseJAWAB: False - menggunakan ndp sebagai pengganti arp2.

Select which of the following are 'Public IP addresses':multiple answersa. 172.168.254.2JAWAB: B,E 172.16.0.0/12 - 172.16.0.1 - 172.31.255.2543.

In MikroTik RouterOS, Layer-3 communication between 2 hosts can be achieved by using an address subnet of:multiple answersa. /31JAWAB: B4. A PC with IP 192.168.1.2 can access internet, and static ARP has been set for that IP address on gateway. When the PC Ethernet card failed, the user change it with a new card and set the same IP for it.What else should be done?multiple answersa.

Old static ARP entry on gateway has to be updated for the new cardb. Nothing - it will work as beforec. MAC-address of the new card has to be changed to MAC address of old cardd. Another IP has to be added for Internet accessJAWAB: A,C,D5. How many usable IP addresses are there in a 20-bit subnet?single answera.

4094JAWAB: E6. What is the default TTL (time to live) on a router that an IP packet can experience before it will be discarded?multiple answersa. 64JAWAB: A,B,D (ga yakin)7. The network address ismultiple answersa. The first usable address of the subnetb. The last address of the subnetc.

The first address of the subnetJAWAB: A,B8. Choose all valid hosts address range for subnet 15.242.55.62/27single answera. 15.242.55.31-15.242.55.62JAWAB: C9. Which ones of the following are valid IP addresses?multiple answersa. 192.168.256.1JAWAB: B,C10.

Which of the following is NOT a valid MAC Address?multiple answersa. EA:BA:AA:EE:FF:CBJAWAB: A,C11. If ARP=reply-only is configured on an interface, what will this interface domultiple answersa. Add new IP addresses in /ip arp listb.

Accept all IP/MAC combinations listed in /ip arp as static entriesc. Accept all MAC-addresses listed in /ip arp as static entriesd. Add new MAC addresses in /ip arp liste.

Accept all IP addresses listed in /ip arp as static entriesJAWAB: B,E12. What is term for the hardware coded address found on an interface?single answera. Interface Addressc. MAC Addressd.

FQDN AddressJAWAB: C13. Which of the following IP addresses are publicly routable?multiple answersa. 11.3.10.4JAWAB: A,D14. What protocol does ping use?single answera.

ICMPJAWAB: D15. MAC layer by OSI model is also known assingle answera. Layer 1JAWAB: C16. How many layers does Open Systems Interconnection model have?single answera. How many IP addresses can one find in the header of an IP packet?single answera. 2JAWAB: C (ga yakin)18. Select valid MAC-addresssingle answera.

AEC8:21F1:AA44:54FF:1111DAE:0212:1201JAWAB: B19. The basic unit of a physical network (OSI Layer 1) is the:single answera. HeaderJAWAB: C20. You have a router with configuration- Public IP:202.168.125.45/24- Default gateway:202.168.125.1- DNS server: 248.115.148.136, 248.115.148.137- Local IP: 192.168.2.1/24Mark the correct configuration on client PC to access to the Internetsingle answera. IP:192.168.0.1/24 gateway:192.168.2.1b. IP:192.168.2.253/24 gateway:202.168.0.1c. IP:192.168.1.223/24 gateway:248.115.148.136d.

IP:192.168.2.115/24 gateway: 192.168.2.1e. IP:192.168.2.2/24 gateway:202.168.125.45JAWAB: DReal Test1. On the advanced menu of the wireless setup there is a parameter called “Area”, it works directly with:A. Connect List.B. Access ListC. None of theseD. Security Profile2.

What menus should be used to allow certain websites to be accessed from behind a hotspot interface, without client authenticationA. Ip hotspot ip-bindingB. Ip hotspot profileC. Ip hotspot walled-garden.D. Ip hotspot walled-garden ip3. You want to use PCQ and allow 256k maximum download and upload for each client. Choose correct argument values for the required queue.A.

Kind=pcq pcq-limit=1256000 pcq-classifier=dst-addressB. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=dst-address.C. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=src-addressD. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=src-address.E. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=dst-address4. Which of the following is true for connection trackingA. Enabling connection tracking reduces CPU usage in RouterOSB.

Connection tracking must be enabled for firewall to be effective.C. Connection tracking must be enable for NAT’ed networkD. Disable connection tracking for mangle to work5. Which of these are possible solutions to bridge two networks over a wireless link:A. Both devices in AP mode and enable WDS modeB.

One device in AP mode, another one in station-pseudobridge-cloneC. One device in AP mode, another one in station-pseudobridge.D. One device in AP mode, another one in station6. What kind of users are listed in the Secrets window of the PPP menu?A. Hotspot usersB. Pppoe usersC.

Pptp users.D. Wireless usersF. Winbox users7. Router A and B are both running as PPPoE servers on different broadcast domains of your network. Is it possible to set Router A to use “/ppp secret” accounts from Router B to authenticate PPPoE customers?8.

You have a 802.11b/g wireless card. Which frequencies can be set?A. Which of the following Routes statuses are possible?A. C = Connected.B.

A = Active.D. Can you manually add drivers to RouterOS in case your PCI Ethernet card is not recognized, and you suspect it is a driver issue?A.

Action=redirect applies toA. Route rulesB. DST-NAT rules.C. Firewall Filter rulesD. SRC-NAT rules12. When backing up your router by using the ‘Export’ command, the following happens:A.

Winbox usernames and passwords are backed upB. The Export file can be edited with a standard text editor after its creation.C.

Soal Dan Pembahasan Tentang Fpb Sd Untuk Osn Streaming

You are requested to give the export file a name13. You need to reboot a RouterBoard after importing a previously exported rsc file to activate the new configuration.salah14. If ARP=reply-only is configured on an interface, what will this interface doA. Add new IP addresses in /ip arp listB. Accept all IP/MAC combinations listed in /ip arp as static entries.C. Add new MAC addresses in /ip arp listD. Accept all IP addresses listed in /ip arp as static entriesE.

Accept all MAC-addresses listed in /ip arp as static entries.15. It is impossible to disable user “admin” at the menu “/user”salah16.

If a packet comes to a router and starts a new, previously unseen connection, which connection state would be applied to it?A. No connection state would be applied to such packetB. We have two radio cards in a point-to-point link with settings:Card Nr 1.: mode=ap-bridge ssid=”office”frequency=2447 band=2.4ghz-b/g default-authentication=yes default-forwarding=yes security-profile=wpaCard Nr 2.: mode=station ssid=”office”frequency=2412 band=2.4ghz-b/g default-authentication=yes default-forwarding=yes security-profile=wpa2Is Card Nr2.

Able to connect to Card Nr 1.?A. Yes, if Nstreme is enabled or disabled on bothB. Yes, when security profile settings are compatible with each other and Nstreme is enabled or disabled on bothC. No, because of the different frequenciesD. No, because of the different security profiles.18. If you need to make sure that one computer in your HotSpot network can access the Internet without HotSpot authentication, which menu allows you to do this?A. Walled-garden IPB.

IP bindings.19. Consider the following network diagram. In R1, you have the following configuration:/ip routeadd dst-address=192.168.1.0/24 gateway=192.168.99.2/ip firewall natadd chain=srcnat out-interface=Ether1 action=masqueradeOn R2, if you wish to prevent all access to a server located at 192.168.1.10 from LAN1 devices, which of the following rules would be needed?A. /ip firewall filter add chain=forward src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropB.

/ip firewall filter add chain=input src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropC. /ip firewall nat add chain=dstnat src-address=192.168.99.1 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=dropD. /ip firewall filter add chain=forward src-address=192.168.0.0/24 dst-address=192.168.1.10 action=drop20. What is the default protocol/port of (secure) winbox?A. What protocol is used for Ping and Trace route?A.

Mark the queue types that are available in RouterOSA. SFQ – Stochastic Fairness Queuing.B.

DRR – Deficit Round RobinC. FIFO – First In First Out (for Bytes or for Packets).D. LIFO – Last In First OutE. PCQ – Per Connection Queuing.F. RED – Random Early Detect (or Drop).23. Select which of the following are ‘Public IP addresses’:A.

What letters appear next to a route, which is automatically created by RouterOS when user adds a valid address to an active interface?A. C =conected25. Which is the default port of IP-Winbox?A. Which of the following is true for connection trackingA. Enabling connection tracking reduces CPU usage in RouterOSB.

Disable connection tracking for mangle to workC. Connection tracking must be enable for NAT'ed networkD. Connection tracking must be enabled for firewall to be effective2. What kind of users are listed in the '/user' menu?A.

Router usersB. Hotspot usersD. Wireless users3. Which are necessary sections in /queue simple to set bandwidth limitation?A. Target-address, dst-address, max-limitC. Target-address, dst-addressD. Target-address, max-limit4.

What is the maximum number of ARP entries on a Mikrotik RouterOS device?A. Mark all correct answers: destination NAT will take place.A. Before ip firewall filter, chain forwardB.

After routing decisionC. Before routing decisionD. After ip firewall filter, chain forward6.

It is possible to add user-defined chains in ip firewall mangle7. Which configuration menu should you use to change router's Winbox default port?A. /ip firewall service-portsB.

/ip firewall filterC. /system resourceD. /ip service8. MikroTik RouterOS is sending logs to an external syslog server. Which protocol and port is used by RouterOS for sending logs (by default)?A. What is marked by connection-state=established matcher?A.

Packet is related to, but not part of an existing connectionB. Packet begins a new TCP connectionC. Packet does not correspond to any known connectionD. Packet belongs to an existing connection,for example a reply packet or a packet which belongs to already replied connection10.

Can you manually add drivers to RouterOS in case your PCI Ethernet card is not recognized, and you suspect it is a driver issue?A. What wireless modes can be used in a WDS setup?A. For static routing functionality, additionally to the RouterOS system package, you will also need the following software package:A. Router A and B are both running as PPPoE servers on different broadcast domains of your network. Is it possible to set Router A to use '/ppp secret' accounts from Router B to authenticate PPPoE customers?14. The following image shows a RouterOS Wireless Access List configuration.Wireless interface 'Default Authenticate' is unchecked. What will happen with clients connecting to this AP?A.

No client is able to connect to the Wireless Access Point.B. Client with mac-address 00:0C:42:31:38:A2 will connect to wlan1C. 00:0C:42:61:6C:90 client will connect to wlan1D. 00:0C:42:31:38:A2 will connect to wlan1 when the signal strength is greater than -6015. Mark all correct answersA. Default-Forwarding could be enabled for a specific clients by wireless access-listB.

The only way to prevent wireless clients connections - disable wireless interfaceC. Wireless access-list could allow and deny access to your APD.

/ip firewall filter allows to deny authentication to AP16. Is it possible for a client to get an IP address but no gateway after a successful DHCP request?17. You want to use PCQ and allow 256k maximum download and upload for each client. Choose correct argument values for the required queue.A. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=dst-addressB. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=dst-addressC.

Kind=pcq pcq-limit=256000 pcq-classifier=src-addressD. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=5000000 pcq-classifier=src-addressE. Kind=pcq pcq-limit=1256000 pcq-classifier=dst-address18. You would like to allow multiple logins with one user name on a HotSpot server.

How should this be configured?A. Set 'Shared Users' option at /ip hotspotB. It's not possibleC. Set 'only-one=no' at /ip hotspotD. Set 'Shared Users' option at /ip hotspot user profile19.

Check the allowed input formats for wireless scan-list.A. 5500 - 5700E. Hotspot ip-binding is used to allow access to Internet web servers specifing the IP address of the web server instead of the URL.21. What kind of users are listed in the Secrets window of the PPP menu?A.

Hotspot usersD. Wireless usersE. Pppoe usersF. Winbox users22. There are two routes in the routing table:0 dst-addr=10.1.1.0/24 gateway=5.5.5.51 dst-addr=10.1.1.4/30 gateway=5.6.6.6Which gateway will be used to get to the IP address 10.1.1.6?A. The required route is not in the routing tableC.

Both - half of the traffic will be routed through one gateway, half through the other23. Select which of the following are 'Public IP addresses':A. You have a router with configuration- Public IP:202.168.125.45/24- Default gateway:202.168.125.1- DNS server: 248.115.148.136, 248.115.148.137- Local IP: 192.168.2.1/24Mark the correct configuration on client PC to access to the InternetA. IP:192.168.2.115/24 gateway: 192.168.2.1B. IP:192.168.2.2/24 gateway:202.168.125.45C.

IP:192.168.2.253/24 gateway:202.168.0.1D. IP:192.168.1.223/24 gateway:248.115.148.136E. IP:192.168.0.1/24 gateway:192.168.2.125. Collisions are possible in full-duplex Ethernet networks.

Cultivation of a single crop on a given tract of land leads eventually to decreased yields. One reason for this is that harmful bacterial phytopathogens, organisms parasitic on plant hosts, increase in the soil surrounding plant roots. The problem can be cured by crop rotation, denying the pathogens a suitable host for period of time. However, even if crops are not rotated, the severity of diseases brought on by such phytopathogens often decreases after a number or years as the microbial population of the soil changes and the soil becomes “suppressive” to those diseases.While there may be many reasons for this phenomenon, it is clear that levels of certain bacteria, such as Pseudomonas fl uorescens, a bacterium antagonistic to a number of harmful phytopathogens, are greater in suppressive than in nonsuppressive soil. This suggests that the presence of such bacteria suppresses phytopathogens. There is now considerable experimental support for this view.

Wheat yield increases of 27 percent have been obtained in fi eld trials by treatment of wheat seeds with fl uorescent pseudomonads. Similar treatment of sugar beets, cotton, and potatoes has had similar results.These improvements in crop yields through the application of Pseudomonas fl uorescens suggest that agriculture could benefi t from the use of bacteria genetically altered for specifi c purposes. For example, a form of phytopathogen altered to remove its harmful properties could be released into the environment in quantities favorable to its competing with and eventually excluding the harmful normal strain.Some experiments suggest that deliberately releasing altered nonpathogenic Pseudomonas syringae could crowd out the nonaltered variety that causes frost damage. Opponents of such research have objected that the deliberate and large-scale release of genetically altered bacteria might have deleterious results. Proponents, on the other hand, argue that this particular strain is altered only by the removal of the gene responsible for the strain’s propensity to cause frost damage, thereby rendering it safer than the phytopathogen from which it was derived.Some proponents have gone further and suggest that genetic alteration techniques could create organisms with totally new combinations of desirable traits not found in nature. For example, genes responsible for production of insecticidal compounds have been transposed from other bacteria into pseudomonads that colonize corn roots. Experiments of this kind are diffi cult and require great care: such bacteria are developed in highly artifi cial environments and may not compete well with natural soil bacteria.

Nevertheless, proponents contend that the prospects for improved agriculture through such methods seem excellent. These prospects lead many to hope that current efforts to assess the risks of deliberate release of altered microorganisms will successfully answer the concerns of opponents and create a climate in which such research can go forward without undue impediment.1. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? Recent fi eld experiments with genetically altered Pseudomonas bacteria have shown that releasing genetically altered bacteria into the environment would not involve any signifi cant danger.B. Encouraged by current research, advocates of agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria are optimistic that such use will eventually result in improved agriculture, though opponents remain wary.C. Current research indicates that adding genetically altered Pseudomonas syringae bacteria to the soil surrounding crop plant roots will have many benefi cial effects, such as the prevention of frost damage in certain crops.D. Genetic alteration of a number of harmful phytopathogens has been advocated by many researchers who contend that these techniques will eventually replace such outdated methods as crop rotation.E.

Genetic alteration of bacteria has been successful in highly artificial laboratory conditions, but opponents of such research have argued that these techniques are unlikely to produce organisms that are able to survive in natural environments.2. The author discusses naturally occurring Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria in the fi rst paragraph primarily in order to do which one of the following?A. Prove that increases in the level of such bacteria in the soil are the sole cause of soil suppressivityB. Explain why yields increased after wheat fi elds were sprayed with altered Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteriaC.

Detail the chemical processes that such bacteria use to suppress organisms parasitic to crop plants, such as wheat, sugar beets, and potatoesD. Provide background information to support the argument that research into the agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria would be fruitful E.

Argue that crop rotation is unnecessary, since diseases brought on by phytopathogens diminish in severity and eventually disappear on their own3. It can be inferred from the author’s discussion of Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria that which one of the following would be true of crops impervious to parasitical organisms?A. Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria would be absent from the soil surrounding their roots.B. They would crowd out and eventually exclude other crop plants if their growth were not carefully regulated.C. Their yield would not be likely to be improved by adding Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria to the soil.D.

They would mature more quickly than crop plants that were susceptible to parasitical organisms.E. Levels of phytopathogenic bacteria in the soil surrounding their roots would be higher compared with other crop plants.4. It can be inferred from the passage that crop rotation can increase yields in part because.A. Moving crop plants around makes them hardier and more resistant to diseaseB.

The number of Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria in the soil usually increases when crops are rotatedC. The roots of many crop plants produce compounds that are antagonistic to phytopathogens harmful to other crop plantsD. The presence of phytopathogenic bacteria is responsible for the majority of plant diseasesE.

Phytopathogens typically attack some plant species but fi nd other species to be unsuitable hosts5. According to the passage, proponents of the use of genetically altered bacteria in agriculture argue that which one of the following is true of the altered bacteria used in the frost-damage experiments?A. The altered bacteria had a genetic constitution differing from that of the normal strain only in that the altered variety had one less gene.B.

Although the altered bacteria competed effectively with the nonaltered strain in the laboratory, they were not as viable in natural environments.C. The altered bacteria were much safer and more effective than the naturally occurring Pseudomonas fl uorescens bacteria used in earlier experiments.D. The altered bacteria were antagonistic to several types of naturally occurring phytopathogens in the soil surrounding the roots of frost-damaged crops.E.

The altered bacteria were released into the environment in numbers suffi cient to guarantee the validity of experimental results.TEXT 2In 1887 the Dawes Act legislated widescale private ownership of reservation lands in the United States for Native Americans. The act allotted plots of 80 acres to each Native American adult. However, the Native Americans were not granted outright title to their lands. The act defi ned each grant as a “trust patent,” meaning that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA), the governmental agency in charge of administering policy regarding Native Americans, would hold the allotted land in trust for 25 years, during which time the Native American owners could use, but not alienate (sell) the land. After the 25-year period, the Native American allottee would receive a “fee patent” awarding full legal ownership of the land.Two main reasons were advanced for the restriction on the Native Americans’ ability to sell their lands. First, it was claimed that free alienability would lead to immediate transfer of large amounts of former reservation land to non-Native Americans, consequently threatening the traditional way of life on those reservations. A second objection to free alienation was that Native Americans were unaccustomed to, and did not desire, a system of private landownership.

Their custom, it was said, favored communal use of land.However, both of these arguments bear only on the transfer of Native American lands to non-Native Americans; neither offers a reason for prohibiting Native Americans from transferring land among them-selves. Selling land to each other would not threaten the Native American culture. Additionally, if communal land use remained preferable to Native Americans after allotment, free alien ability would have allowed allottees to sell their lands back to the tribe.When stated rationales for government policies prove empty, using an interest-group model often provides an explanation.

While neither Native Americans nor the potential non-Native American purchasers benefi ted from the restraint on alienation contained in the Dawes Act, one clearly defi ned group did benefit: the BIA bureaucrats. It has been convincingly demonstrated that bureaucrats seek to maximize the size of their staffs and their budgets in order to compensate for the lack of other sources of fulfi llment, such as power and prestige. Additionally, politicians tend to favor the growth of governmental bureaucracy because such growth provides increased opportunity for the exercise of political patronage. The restraint on alienation vastly increased the amount of work, and hence the budgets, necessary to implement the statute. Until allotment was ended in 1934, granting fee patents and leasing Native American lands were among the principal activities of the United States government. One hypothesis, then, for the temporary restriction on alienation in the Dawes Act is that it refl ected a compromise between non-Native Americans favoring immediate alienability so they could purchase land and the BIA bureaucrats who administered the privatization system.6. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?A.

United States government policy toward Native Americans has tended to disregard their needs and consider instead the needs of non-Native American purchasers of land.B. In order to preserve the unique way of life on Native American reservations, use of Native American lands must be communal rather than individual.C.

The Dawes Act’s restriction on the right of Native Americans to sell their land may have been implemented primarily to serve the interests of politicians and bureaucrats.D. The clause restricting free alienability in the Dawes Act greatly expanded United States governmental activity in the area of land administration.E. Since passage of the Dawes Act in 1887, Native Americans have not been able to sell or transfer their former reservation land freely.7. Which one of the following statements concerning the reason for the end of allotment, if true, would provide the most support for the author’s view of politicians?A. Politicians realized that allotment was damaging the Native American way of life.B. Politicians decided that allotment would be more congruent with the Native American custom of communal land use.C.

Politicians believed that allotment’s continuation would not enhance their opportunities to exercise patronage.D. Politicians felt that the staff and budgets of the BIA had grown too large.E. Politicians were concerned that too much Native American land was falling into the hands of non-Native Americans.8. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?A. The passage of a law is analyzed in detail, the benefi ts and drawbacks of one of its clauses are studied, and a fi nal assessment of the law is offered.B. The history of a law is narrated, the effects of one of its clauses on various populations are studied, and repeal of the law is advocated.C.

A law is examined, the political and social backgrounds of one of its clauses are characterized, and the permanent effects of the law are studied.D. A law is described, the rationale put forward for one of its clauses is outlined and dismissed, and a different rationale for the clause is presented.E. The legal status of an ethnic group is examined with respect to issues of landownership and commercial autonomy, and the benefi ts to rival groups due to that status are explained.9. The author’s attitude toward the reasons advanced for the restriction on alienability in the Dawes Act at the time of its passage can best be described as.A. Completely credulousB.

Partially approvingC. Basically indecisiveD.

Mildly questioningE. Highly skeptical10. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following was true of Native American life immediately before passage of the Dawes Act?A. Most Native Americans supported themselves through farming.B. Not many Native Americans personally owned the land on which they lived.C. The land on which most Native Americans lived had been bought from their tribes.D.

Few Native Americans had much contact with their non-Native American neighbors.E. Few Native Americans were willing to sell their land to non-Native Americans.TEXT 3Gray marketing, the selling of trademarked products through channels of distribution not authorized by the trademark holder, can involve distribution of goods either within a market region or across market bound aries. Gray marketing within a market region (“channel fl ow diversion”) occurs when manufacturerauthorized distributors sell trademarked goods to unauthorized distributors who then sell the goods to consumers within the same region. For example, quantity discounts from manufacturers may motivate authorized dealers to enter the gray market because they can purchase larger quantities of a product than they themselves intend to stock if they can sell the extra units through gray market channels.When gray marketing occurs across market boundaries, it is typically in an international setting and may be called “parallel importing.” Manufacturers often produce and sell products in more than one country and establish a network of authorized dealers in each country. Parallel importing occurs when trademarked goods intended for one country are diverted from proper channels (channel fl ow diversion) and then exported to unauthorized distributors in another country.Trademark owners justifi ably argue against gray marketing practices since such practices clearly jeopardize the goodwill established by trademark owners: consumers who purchase trademarked goods in the gray market do not get the same “extended product,” which typically includes pre and postsale service. Equally important, authorized distributors may cease to promote the product if it becomes available for much lower prices through unauthorized channels.Current debate over regulation of gray marketing focuses on three disparate theories in trademark law that have been variously and confusingly applied to parallel importation cases: universality, exhaustion, and territoriality.

The theory of universality holds that a trademark is only an indication of the source or origin of the product. This theory does not recognize the goodwill functions of a trademark. When the courts apply this theory, gray marketing practices are allowed to continue because the origin of the product remains the same regardless of the specifi c route of the product through the channel of distribution. The exhaustion theory holds that a trademark owner relinquishes all rights once a product has been sold. When this theory is applied, gray marketing practices are allowed to continue because the trademark owners’ rights cease as soon as their products are sold to a distributor. The theory of territoriality holds that a trademark is effective in the country in which it is registered.

Under the theory of territoriality, trademark owners can stop gray marketing practices in the registering countries on products bearing their trademarks. Since only the territoriality theory affords trademark owners any real legal protection against gray marketing practices, I believe it is inevitable as well as desirable that it will come to be consistently applied in gray marketing cases.11. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?A. Gray marketing is unfair to trademark owners and should be legally controlled.B. Gray marketing is practiced in many different forms and places, and legislators should recognize the futility of trying to regulate it.C. The mechanisms used to control gray marketing across markets are different from those most effective in controlling gray marketing within markets.D. The three trademark law theories that have been applied in gray marketing cases lead to different case outcomes.E.

Current theories used to interpret trademark laws have resulted in increased gray marketing activity.12. The function of the passage as a whole is to.A. Criticize the motives and methods of those who practice gray marketing.B evaluate the effects of both channel fl ow diversion and parallel importation.C.

Discuss the methods that have been used to regulate gray marketing and evaluate such methods’ degrees of success.D. Describe a controversial marketing practice and evaluate several legal views regarding it.E. Discuss situations in which certain marketing practices are common and analyze the economic factors responsible for their development13. Which one of the following does the author offer as an argument against gray marketing?A. Manufacturers fi nd it diffi cult to monitor the effectiveness of promotional efforts made on behalf of products that are gray marketed.B.

Gray marketing can discourage product promotion by authorized distributors.C. Gray marketing forces manufacturers to accept the low profi t margins that result from quantity discounting.D. Gray marketing discourages competition among unauthorized dealers.E. Quality standards in the manufacture of products likely to be gray marketed may decline.14. The information in the passage suggests that proponents of the theory of territoriality would probably differ from proponents of the theory of exhaustion on which one of the following issues?A. The right of trademark owners to enforce, in countries in which the trademarks are registered, distribution agreements intended to restrict distribution to authorized channels.B.

The right of trademark owners to sell trademarked goods only to those distributors who agree to abide by distribution agreements.C. The legality of channel fl ow diversion that occurs in a country other than the one in which a trademark is registered.D. The signifi cance consumers attach to a trademark.E. The usefulness of trademarks as marketing tools.15. The author discusses the impact of gray marketing on goodwill in order to.A. Fault trademark owners for their unwillingness to offer a solution to a major consumer complaint against gray marketing.B. Indicate a way in which manufacturers sustain damage against which they ought to be protected.C.

Highlight one way in which gray marketing across markets is more problematic than gray marketing within a market.D. Demonstrate that gray marketing does not always benefi t the interests of unauthorized distributors.E.

Argue that consumers are unwilling to accept a reduction in price in exchange for elimination of service.